Learn more about the Creation Calendar at http://www.creationcalendar.com/
If you’d like to support this channel please visit:
https://www.patreon.com/sacredwordpublishing
To sign up for our newsletter, which contains discounts and updates, please visit:
https://sacredwordpublishing.com/pages/sacred-word-publishing-newsletter-signup
Zen’s full radio show calendar:
https://sacredwordpublishing.com/pages/zen-garcia
To support the Endeavor Freedom Orphanage please visit:
https://www.endeavorfreedom.net/how-you-can-help
Video Source
This is the truth!
I cant explain how important this is to me
Hey ✌️from Cape Breton,Nova Scotia
Shalom – I do have questions. Knowing that the moon must go to the dark phase (hidden) to come out as a new moon (sliver) which then builds up to a full moon, and considering that Isaiah has told us in Isa 60:20, that on the earth made new, the moon will no longer withdraw itself (dark/hidden phase), I am wondering how your system of worshipping according to the moon will morph into a different system of determining the Mo-edim, when there is no longer a new moon system on the earth made new?
The other question is – How can Isaiah declare in Isaiah 60:20 that on the earth made new there will no longer be a new moon phase, and yet in Isaiah 66:23 – speaking into the exact same earth made new – our editions of Scripture reads as such – that from "new moon to new moon" we will worship on the Shabbat? Did Isaiah forget what he wrote just a few chapters earlier? Is Isaiah a false prophet for speaking two entirely different concepts? I will be interested in hearing your solution to this highly contentious conundrum!? For one or the other cannot be true. Both situations cannot exist at the same time. Or will there somehow be two separate worlds evolve from this one, one world that worships according to the moon against the statutes of the Torah, and also, one world that worships according to the outline written in Genesis 1 and all throughout the Scripture, exactly as exemplified by Yahusha Ha Mashiach in not only His Life, but also very importantly, by His DEATH TIMEFRAME also? Eager to hear your solution.
Zen Garcia: The LORD's Prayer: Premise; The LORD is Jesus. The LORD's Prayer is Jesus's prayer to His Heavenly Father. The Prayer begins: Our … O U R Father, who are't in Heaven … . If the LORD's prayer is Jesus's prayer to His Father, shouldn't the beginning go something like: My … M Y Father, who are't in Heaven?
If we run with "Our Father, who are't in Heaven …" then who are the other LORDS? And, is it the LORD's (possessive) Prayer or the LORDs (plural) Prayer? Can the LORD be also praying on behalf of its slaves the "Christians"?
I am also looking at Adam and Jesus. Adam was a physical Son of God.
Jesus was the spiritual Son of God in the flesh.
If man are related to Adam, then, by extension, we are also sons and daughters of God?
Add in Jesus being a Son of God, does this, also by extension, mean we are the Sons and Daughters of Jesus who is the Spiritual Son of God? If so, how does Jesus become our LORD and we His SLAVES? Where did we dump our relationship to the family of God?
Don't "think" I have fully explained myself …